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NEW QUESTION # 30
Using a data loss prevention (DLP) solution to monitor data saved to a USB memory device is an example of managing:
- A. data redundancy.
- B. data availability.
- C. data at rest.
- D. data in use.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Using a data loss prevention (DLP) solution to monitor data saved to a USB memory device is an example of managing data at rest. Data at rest is data that is stored on a device or media, such as hard disks, flash drives, tapes, or CDs. Data at rest can be exposed to unauthorized access, theft, or loss if not properly protected. A DLP solution is a tool that monitors and controls the movement and usage of data across an organization's network or endpoints. A DLP solution can prevent users from saving sensitive data to removable devices or alert on any violations of data policies.
NEW QUESTION # 31
Which of the following is the GREATEST drawback when using the AICPA/CICA Trust Sen/ices to evaluate a cloud service provider?
- A. Lack of specificity m the principles
- B. Inability to issue SOC 2 or SOC 3 reports
- C. Incompatibility with cloud service business model
- D. Omission of confidentiality in the criteria
Answer: A
Explanation:
The GREATEST drawback when using the AICPA/CICA Trust Services to evaluate a cloud service provider is the lack of specificity in the principles. This is because the AICPA/CICA Trust Services are a set of principles and criteria that provide guidance for evaluating and reporting on controls over information systems and services. However, the principles and criteria are very broad and generic, and do not address the specific risks and challenges that are associated with cloud services, such as data sovereignty, multi-tenancy, portability, etc. The other options are not drawbacks when using the AICPA/CICA Trust Services to evaluate a cloud service provider, but rather different aspects or benefits of using the AICPA/CICA Trust Services to evaluate a cloud service provider, such as compatibility (A), confidentiality C, or reporting (D).
NEW QUESTION # 32
Within the NIST core cybersecurity framework, which function is associated with using organizational understanding to minimize risk to systems, assets, and data?
- A. Recover
- B. Respond
- C. Identify
- D. Detect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Within the NIST core cybersecurity framework, the identify function is associated with using organizational understanding to minimize risk to systems, assets, and data. This is because the identify function helps organizations to develop an organizational understanding of their cybersecurity risk management posture, as well as the threats, vulnerabilities, and impacts that could affect their business objectives. The other functions are not directly related to using organizational understanding, but rather focus on detecting (A), recovering C, or responding (D) to cybersecurity events.
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which of the following is a MAIN benefit of using Security as a Service (SECaaS) providers?
- A. Enterprises can use the latest technologies to counter threats that are constantly evolving.
- B. SECaaS providers are compliant with specific security requirements and new regulations.
- C. Significant investments and specialized security skills are not required.
- D. Available security services from providers are affordable to enterprises of all sizes.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A MAIN benefit of using Security as a Service (SECaaS) providers is that significant investments and specialized security skills are not required. SECaaS is a type of cloud service model that provides security solutions and services to customers over the internet. SECaaS providers can offer various security functions such as antivirus, firewall, encryption, identity management, vulnerability scanning, and incident response. By using SECaaS providers, customers can save costs and resources on acquiring, maintaining, and updating security hardware and software. Customers can also leverage the expertise and experience of the SECaaS providers to address their security needs and challenges.
NEW QUESTION # 34
Which of the following is a more efficient form of public key cryptography as it demands less computational power and offers more security per bit?
- A. Digital Signature Standard
- B. Diffie-Hellman Key Agreement
- C. Elliptic Curve Cryptography
- D. Secret Key Cryptography
Answer: C
Explanation:
Elliptic curve cryptography (ECC) is a more efficient form of public key cryptography as it demands less computational power and offers more security per bit. ECC is based on the mathematical properties of elliptic curves, which are curves that have a special shape that makes them suitable for cryptography. ECC can achieve the same level of security as other public key algorithms with much smaller key sizes, which reduces storage and bandwidth requirements.
NEW QUESTION # 35
Using a data loss prevention (DLP) solution to monitor data saved to a USB memory device is an example of managing:
- A. data redundancy.
- B. data availability.
- C. data at rest.
- D. data in use.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Using a data loss prevention (DLP) solution to monitor data saved to a USB memory device is an example of managing data at rest. Data at rest is data that is stored on a device or media, such as hard disks, flash drives, tapes, or CDs. Data at rest can be exposed to unauthorized access, theft, or loss if not properly protected. A DLP solution is a tool that monitors and controls the movement and usage of data across an organization's network or endpoints. A DLP solution can prevent users from saving sensitive data to removable devices or alert on any violations of data policies.
NEW QUESTION # 36
The risk of an evil twin attack on mobile devices is PRIMARILY due to:
- A. weak authentication protocols in wireless networks.
- B. use of data transmission that is not always encrypted.
- C. tokens stored as plain text in many mobile device applications.
- D. generic names that mobile devices will accept without verification.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The risk of an evil twin attack on mobile devices is PRIMARILY due to the use of generic names that mobile devices will accept without verification. An evil twin attack is a type of wireless network attack where an attacker sets up a rogue access point that mimics a legitimate one. The attacker can then lure unsuspecting users to connect to the rogue access point and intercept their data or launch further attacks. Mobile devices are vulnerable to evil twin attacks because they often use generic names for their wireless networks, such as "Free WiFi" or "Public Hotspot". These names can be easily spoofed by an attacker and accepted by mobile devices without verifying the identity or security of the access point.
NEW QUESTION # 37
The GREATEST advantage of using a common vulnerability scoring system is that it helps with:
- A. risk aggregation.
- B. risk elimination.
- C. risk quantification
- D. risk prioritization.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The GREATEST advantage of using a common vulnerability scoring system is that it helps with risk prioritization. This is because a common vulnerability scoring system provides a standardized and consistent way of measuring and comparing the severity of vulnerabilities, based on their impact and exploitability. This allows organizations to prioritize the remediation of the most critical vulnerabilities and allocate resources accordingly. The other options are not as advantageous as using a common vulnerability scoring system, because they either involve aggregating (A), eliminating C, or quantifying (D) risk, which are not directly related to the scoring system.
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which of the following is the MOST serious consequence of mobile device loss or theft?
- A. Cost of purchasing replacement devices
- B. Compromise of transient data
- C. Physical damage to devices
- D. Installation of unauthorized applications
Answer: B
Explanation:
The MOST serious consequence of mobile device loss or theft is the compromise of transient data. Transient data is data that is temporarily stored or processed on a mobile device, such as cached data, cookies, browsing history, passwords, or session tokens. Transient data can reveal sensitive information about the user or the organization and can be exploited by attackers to gain access to other systems or networks.
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which of the following describes specific, mandatory controls or rules to support and comply with a policy?
- A. Guidelines
- B. Standards
- C. Frameworks
- D. Basedine
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Specific, mandatory controls or rules to support and comply with a policy are known as standards. This is because standards define the minimum level of performance or behavior that is expected from an organization or its employees in order to achieve a policy objective or requirement. Standards also provide clear and measurable criteria for auditing and monitoring compliance with policies. The other options are not specific, mandatory controls or rules to support and comply with a policy, but rather different types of documents or tools that provide guidance or recommendations for implementing policies or controls, such as frameworks (A), guidelines (B), or baselines C.
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which of the following is an objective of public key infrastructure (PKI)?
- A. Approving the algorithm to be used during data transmission
- B. Creating the private-public key pair for secure communications
- C. Independently authenticating the validity of the sender's public key
- D. Securely distributing secret keys to the communicating parties
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
An objective of public key infrastructure (PKI) is to independently authenticate the validity of the sender's public key. PKI is a system that uses cryptographic keys to secure communications and transactions. PKI involves a trusted third party called a certificate authority (CA) that issues digital certificates that link a public key with an identity. The recipient can use the CA's public key to verify the sender's certificate and public key.
NEW QUESTION # 41
What is the MAIN consideration when storing backup files?
- A. Storing copies on-site for ease of access during incident response
- B. Protecting the off-site data backup copies from unauthorized access
- C. Utilizing solid slate device (SSDJ media for quick recovery
- D. Storing backup files on public cloud storage
Answer: B
Explanation:
The MAIN consideration when storing backup files is protecting the off-site data backup copies from unauthorized access. This is because protecting the off-site data backup copies from unauthorized access helps to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of the backup data, and prevent any unauthorized or malicious disclosure, modification, or deletion of the backup data. Protecting the off-site data backup copies from unauthorized access also helps to comply with any regulatory or contractual requirements that may apply to the backup data. The other options are not the main consideration when storing backup files, but rather different aspects or factors that affect the backup process, such as using solid state device (SSD) media (A), storing backup files on public cloud storage (B), or storing copies on-site (D).
NEW QUESTION # 42
Which of the following is the SLOWEST method of restoring data from backup media?
- A. Monthly backup
- B. Incremental backup
- C. Differential Backup
- D. Full backup
Answer: B
Explanation:
The SLOWEST method of restoring data from backup media is an incremental backup. This is because an incremental backup is a type of backup that only copies the files that have been created or modified since the previous backup, whether it was a full or an incremental backup. An incremental backup makes the restoration process slower, as it requires restoring multiple backups in a specific order and sequence, starting from the last full backup and then applying each incremental backup until the desired point in time is reached. The other options are not methods of restoring data from backup media that are slower than an incremental backup, but rather different types of backup procedures that copy files based on different criteria, such as monthly backup (A), full backup (B), or differential backup C.
NEW QUESTION # 43
Which of the following is the MAIN reason why domain name system (DNS) data exfiltration is a significant threat to mobile computing?
- A. There is relative anonymity of network connections outside the organization.
- B. It is easy to execute command and control of the mobile target.
- C. It is difficult to distinguish malicious activity from legitimate traffic.
- D. It is simple to inject malformed code to compromise data processing.
Answer: C
Explanation:
DNS data exfiltration poses a significant threat to mobile computing mainly because it is challenging to differentiate between malicious activity and legitimate DNS traffic. Attackers can exploit this by embedding data within DNS queries and responses, which often go unnoticed because DNS traffic is generally allowed through firewalls and security systems without triggering alerts. This method of data theft can be particularly effective in mobile computing, where devices frequently switch networks and rely on DNS for connectivity.
Reference = ISACA's resources on cybersecurity risks associated with DNS highlight the difficulty in detecting DNS data exfiltration due to its ability to blend in with normal traffic. This is further supported by industry resources that discuss the challenges in identifying and preventing such exfiltration techniques1234.
NEW QUESTION # 44
in key protection/management, access should be aligned with which of the following?
- A. Position responsibilities
- B. System limitation
- C. Role descriptions
- D. Least privilege
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
In key protection/management, access should be aligned with the principle of least privilege. This means that users should only have the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks and no more. This reduces the risk of unauthorized access, misuse, or compromise of sensitive data or systems.
NEW QUESTION # 45
Which of the following describes Secure Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTPS)?
- A. HTTP protected by asymmetric encryption
- B. HTTP with an encrypted session via Transport Layer Security
- C. HTTP with an encrypted session via MD5 or RC4 protocols
- D. HTTP protected by symmetric encryption
Answer: B
Explanation:
HTTPS, or Secure Hypertext Transfer Protocol, is an extension of HTTP that is protected by encryption via Transport Layer Security (TLS). This protocol ensures secure communication over a computer network by encrypting the data exchanged between a web server and a web browser, thereby protecting the integrity and confidentiality of the transmitted data.
Reference = While I cannot provide direct references from the Cybersecurity Audit Manual, the definition and workings of HTTPS are well-established in cybersecurity resources. HTTPS uses TLS (formerly SSL) to secure the data transfer, which is a fundamental concept covered in various cybersecurity literature, including ISACA's materials123. For detailed information, please refer to the official ISACA resources and study guides.
NEW QUESTION # 46
Which of the following cloud characteristics describes computing capabilities that can be provisioned without human interaction from the service provider?
- A. Measured service
- B. Broad network access
- C. On-demand self-service
- D. Agile service management
Answer: C
Explanation:
The characteristic of cloud computing that allows users to provision computing capabilities without human interaction from the service provider is known as on-demand self-service. This feature enables users to automatically manage their computing resources, such as server time and network storage, as needed, which provides agility and flexibility in resource management.
NEW QUESTION # 47
Which of the following is the BEST indication that an organization's vulnerability management process is operating effectively?
- A. Remediation efforts are communicated to management
- B. The vulnerability program is formally approved
- C. Remediation efforts are prioritized.
- D. The vulnerability program is reviewed annually.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The BEST indication that an organization's vulnerability management process is operating effectively is that remediation efforts are prioritized. This is because prioritizing remediation efforts helps to ensure that the most critical and urgent vulnerabilities are addressed first, based on their severity, impact, and exploitability. Prioritizing remediation efforts also helps to optimize the use of resources and time for mitigating vulnerabilities and reducing risks. The other options are not as indicative of an effective vulnerability management process, because they either involve communicating (A), approving (B), or reviewing C aspects that are not directly related to remediating vulnerabilities.
NEW QUESTION # 48
in key protection/management, access should be aligned with which of the following?
- A. Position responsibilities
- B. System limitation
- C. Role descriptions
- D. Least privilege
Answer: D
Explanation:
In key protection/management, access should be aligned with the principle of least privilege. This means that users should only have the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks and no more. This reduces the risk of unauthorized access, misuse, or compromise of sensitive data or systems.
NEW QUESTION # 49
Which of the following is MOST important to verify when reviewing the effectiveness of an organization's identity management program?
- A. Processes are approved by the process owner.
- B. Processes are updated and documented annually.
- C. Processes are centralized and standardized.
- D. Processes are aligned with industry best practices.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The MOST important thing to verify when reviewing the effectiveness of an organization's identity management program is whether the processes are aligned with industry best practices. Identity management is the process of managing the identities and access rights of users across an organization's systems and resources. Industry best practices provide guidelines and standards for how to implement identity management in a secure, efficient, and compliant manner.
NEW QUESTION # 50
In cloud computing, which type of hosting is MOST appropriate for a large organization that wants greater control over the environment?
- A. Hybrid hosting
- B. Shared hosting
- C. Private hosting
- D. Public hosting
Answer: C
Explanation:
In cloud computing, the type of hosting that is MOST appropriate for a large organization that wants greater control over the environment is private hosting. Private hosting is a type of cloud service model where the cloud infrastructure is dedicated to a single organization and hosted either on-premise or off-premise by a third-party provider. Private hosting offers more control over the security, performance, customization, and compliance of the cloud environment than other types of hosting.
NEW QUESTION # 51
Which of the following is a team created PRIMARILY to improve the security posture of an organization?
- A. Computer emergency response team (CERT)
- B. Risk management team
- C. Disaster recovery team
- D. Security operations center (SOC) team
Answer: D
Explanation:
The primary purpose of a Security Operations Center (SOC) team is to continuously monitor and improve an organization's security posture. They are responsible for the detection, analysis, and response to cybersecurity incidents, using a combination of technology solutions and a strong set of processes.
Reference = ISACA's resources highlight the role of SOC teams in enhancing the security measures of an organization. They are integral to the proactive defense against cyber threats and play a key role in the strategic planning of security measures123.
NEW QUESTION # 52
Which of the following is a computer-software vulnerability that is unknown to those who would be interested in mitigating the vulnerability?
- A. Cross-site scripting vulnerability
- B. Memory leakage vulnerability
- C. Zero-day vulnerability
- D. SQL injection vulnerability
Answer: C
Explanation:
A computer-software vulnerability that is unknown to those who would be interested in mitigating the vulnerability is a zero-day vulnerability. This is because a zero-day vulnerability is a type of vulnerability that has not been reported or disclosed to the public or to the software vendor yet, and may be exploited by attackers before it is patched or fixed. A zero-day vulnerability poses a high risk to systems and applications that are affected by it, as there may be no known defense or solution against it. The other options are not computer-software vulnerabilities that are unknown to those who would be interested in mitigating the vulnerability, but rather types of vulnerabilities that are known and reported to the public or to the software vendor, such as cross-site scripting vulnerability (A), SQL injection vulnerability (B), or memory leakage vulnerability C.
NEW QUESTION # 53
Which of the following backup procedure would only copy files that have changed since the last backup was made?
- A. Incremental backup
- B. Differential backup
- C. Daily backup
- D. Full backup
Answer: A
Explanation:
The backup procedure that would only copy files that have changed since the last backup was made is an incremental backup. This is because an incremental backup is a type of backup that only copies the files that have been created or modified since the previous backup, whether it was a full or an incremental backup. An incremental backup helps to reduce the backup time and storage space, as well as the recovery time, as only the changed files need to be restored. The other options are not backup procedures that would only copy files that have changed since the last backup was made, but rather different types of backup procedures that copy files based on different criteria, such as daily backup (B), differential backup C, or full backup (D).
NEW QUESTION # 54
Which of the following BEST helps IT administrators to ensure servers have no unnecessary features installed?
- A. Comparison against information security policy
- B. Comparison against baseline standards
- C. Review of vulnerability scanning results
- D. Verification of user acceptance testing
Answer: A
Explanation:
To ensure servers have no unnecessary features installed, IT administrators should compare the current server configuration against predefined baseline standards. These standards serve as a guide for the minimum necessary configurations and help identify any deviations, including unnecessary features or services that may introduce security vulnerabilities.
Reference = Baseline standards are a critical component of cybersecurity audits as they provide a clear framework for the secure configuration of systems. ISACA's resources emphasize the importance of using baseline standards as part of the cybersecurity audit process to manage and mitigate risks effectively123.
NEW QUESTION # 55
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